1Co 6:1-3 Is there a connection between the topic Paul is now beginning to discuss and that which he has been discussing in chapter 5? What does Paul mean that the saints will judge the world, and even angels? See Ps 149:5-9, Mat 19:28, Jude 1:6,14-15, Rev 2:26-27, 3:21, 20:4. Explain the substance of Paul’s argument in these verses as to why Christians must settle their disputes among themselves and not before a pagan court. Have we come to know the righteousness and justice of God so well as to be competent judges of the world?
1Co 6:4-6 Note: 1Co 6:4 may be understood interrogatively as in the NASB rendering meaning that the Corinthians were appointing as judges over them pagans who were contemptible to the saints, or as an imperative, meaning that if Christians have disputes among themselves they would do better to appoint the least esteemed Christians in the church than appoint the most esteemed pagans to judge their affairs (see NIV). Why should the Corinthians have been ashamed? See also 1Co 15:34. Were the Corinthians ashamed? See 1Co 4:6,18,19, 5:2. What is the great danger when a people no longer blush at their sins? See Jer 3:3, 5:3, 8:12, Rev 17:5, 1 Tim 4:2.
1Co 6:7-8 Why was the fact that the Corinthians had lawsuits among themselves evidence that they had already been defeated? In what regard had they suffered defeat? See 13:7, James 4:1, Mat 5:39-41, Rom 12:17-18, 1 Thess 5:15. Notice the force of Paul’s argument: “That there should be disputes about the things of this life is bad; that Christian should go to law with Christian is worse; that Christians should do this before unbelievers is worst of all”.
1Co 6:9-11 What is the connection between 1Co 6:8 and 1Co 6:9-10? Considering also the context of chapter 5, what is clear about people who claim to be Christians but continue to walk in sin? When Paul writes in 1Co 6:9 to not be deceived about this matter, is it possible people could be deceived? Notice in these verses as well as in both 1Co 5:10 & 11 he has mentioned the covetous and swindlers; how do you suppose some among the Corinthians were wronging and defrauding (1Co 6:8)? Again, how does Paul say Christians should respond to being defrauded in this way? By lawsuits? What does 1Co 6:11 teach us about the power of the gospel to deliver people from their sins? What does it teach us about the notion some people have today that they are born effeminate or homosexual and therefore such isn’t a sin?
1Co 6:12 “All things are lawful for me” was a proverbial saying that had arisen from Paul’s foundational doctrines of the gospel, but it was being used in a way Paul never intended to justify sin. What does Paul mean that all things are lawful? See Rom 6:14, 7:4,6, 14:14 and Gal 4:21. What does he mean that not all things are profitable and he will not be mastered by anything? See 10:23, Jn 8:34, Rom 6:16, 2 Pet 2:19, 1 Cor 9:20-21.
1Co 6:13-18 Some were arguing (as many do today) that as they were no longer under the ceremonial laws governing food, neither were they under the moral laws governing sex. What is wrong with this reasoning, and with what three arguments does Paul refute it? See 1Co 6:14, 15-17 and 18-20, see also 1Co 15:50 and Rom 14:17. Note: the manuscripts vary on “will raise us up” in 1Co 6:14: some have the present tense (“he also raises us up” in the present) and some even the aorist (“he has also raised us up” to give us victory over such sin, see 1Co 6:11).
1Co 6:15-17 Why is it so repulsive for a Christian to engage in sexual immorality? How is it a reproach upon Christ Himself? See also Eph 5:25-32. How might these verses also be understood as joining ourselves to a spiritual harlot? Who might that be? See Rev 17:5, 18:2-5, Prov 2:11-13,16-19, 5:1-6, 7:5-27, James 4:4, 2 Pet 2:18-19.
1Co 6:18-20 How is it that immorality is a sin against one’s own body? What two reasons are given in 1Co 6:19-20 as to why the purity of our physical bodies is necessary in our devotion to Christ? With what price were we bought? See Acts 20:28, 1 Pet 1:18-19.
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The Atonement of Christ's Blood: Understanding How the Blood of Christ Saves and Reconciles us to God
- What is the relationship between Jesus’ sacrifice and our redemption, forgiveness and receiving an inheritance per the terms of the covenant / will that was effected by His death?
- From what, and to what, are we saved? Is it Jesus’ death alone that saves us? What part does His resurrection have in our salvation?
- Does the justice of God demand the satisfaction of blood before He will forgive, similar to what pagans throughout history have believed?
- What was the purpose of the Old Testament sacrifices?
- Does blood alone atone for sin?
- How does Christ’s death render powerless the devil?
- To whom was Christ’s life given as a ransom? From what are we ransomed?
- Why did Jesus not only die, but suffer and die? If all that was necessary was His shed blood, why didn’t God sovereignly ordain a more merciful death for His own dear Son?
- What is the relationship between a will or testament, and a covenant? What was willed to Jesus as an inheritance from His Father, and what was willed to us through the new testament in His blood?