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Recall that after having posed many questions to Jesus in order to catch Him in something He might say, Jesus has now posed a question to the religious leaders, not to ensnare, but to instruct them.  Were they able to answer the question Jesus asked them?  See Mat 22:46.  What is the answer to His question that although the most learned at that time could not answer, now even the most uneducated child of Christ can?  I.e., although the son of David, whose son was the Messiah also to be that David would call Him Lord?  See Isa 7:14, 9:6-7, Mat 14:33, 16:13-16, Joh 1:49, 6:68, 20:28, Phil 2:6-7 and cf. Rev 22:16 and note[1].  What does the inability of the learned men of that time to understand the paradox Jesus posed that is easily understood today illustrate about the importance of divine revelation to our spiritual understanding?  How does such divine revelation come to us and where is it found?  See Mat 22:43 for how it came to David, and cf. 2Ti 3:16.  Is just having the inspired word of God and being educated to read it enough to ensure that we will understand its divine revelation?  Think: was it enough for the religious leaders to whom Jesus posed His question?  Can the things of God be comprehended by means of our intellect only?  How then are they comprehended?  Cf. 1Co 2:9-13, Joh 14:26, 16:13, 1Jo 2:27.  If then one is not filled with and led by the same Spirit of God who breathed the holy Scriptures, should he expect to be able to comprehend the things of God?  How can one know that he is being led by God’s Holy Spirit and not some other spirit?  Think: where does the Holy Spirit lead one? See Rom 1:3-4, 8:5,11-14, 2Co 6:17-7:1 and consider that the Holy Spirit who is from God leads us into holiness by dwelling within us and raising us up from being dead in our sins even as He raised from the dead Christ Jesus who took on flesh to be tempted in all things as we are and yet was without sin.  In contrast, what does Scripture warn us about from where other spirits come and where they will lead one?  See 1Jo 4:1-6, esp. 1Jo 4:5, and cf. 1Co 2:12, 1Jo 2:15-17, 3:7-10.

What is the great significance for the salvation of God’s people that the Messiah would not only be the son of David but the Son of God?  See Joh 8:24 and think: if the Christ were only the son of David, could He have reigned forever on David’s throne?  As the son of David only, could He have provided for God’s people a complete deliverance from all their bondage as they expected Him to do, since man’s bondage is ultimately rooted in sin and to deliver from sin would require a perfect sacrifice?  Cf. Rom 5:12, Psa 49:7-9.  What does this remind us about the significance and importance of the virgin birth?  See Mat 1:18-23, Luk 1:31-35.

Recall from Mar 12:28-37 that immediately prior to the question Jesus posed to the religious leaders who had gathered against Him, one of them, a scribe, had acknowledged the light of Jesus’ teaching and answered Him “intelligently”, to which Jesus responded that he was not far from the kingdom of God; what is the significance of the question Jesus then posed in this context for helping the learned scribe understand what else was necessary in order that he might actually enter into the kingdom of God?  See Mat 5:20, Phil 3:7-11 and cf. Joh 3:3-16.


1. Christ, as God, was David’s Lord, but Christ, as man, was David’s Son. He was both the root and the offspring of David, Rev. 22:16. By his human nature he was the offspring of David, a branch of his family; by his divine nature he was the root of David, from whom he had his being and life, and all the supplies of grace.  Matthew Henry.

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